Exam
Name___________________________________
 
MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 
1) 

A major advance in the development of EMS as a true health care profession was  

1) 

_______ 
A) 

the National Occupational Competency Profiles.  
B) 

Emergency Incident Management.  
C) 

Emergency!  
D) 

Basic Trauma Life Support. 
E) 

Our Bodies, Our Selves.  

 
2) 

The paramedic must be able to function ________ at an optimum level in a non-structured, constantly changing environment.  

2) 

_______ 
A) 

occasionally  
B) 

thoroughly  
C) 

independently  
D) 

fully  
E) 

aggressively 

 
3) 

To practice, paramedics must be approved not only by a regulatory agency, but also by  

3) 

_______ 
A) 

a professional organization.  
B) 

local authorities.  
C) 

hospital administrators. 
D) 

a federal bureau.  
E) 

the EMS system's medical director.  

 
4) 

The primary concern of the paramedic is  

4) 

_______ 
A) 

the emergency patient.  
B) 

the ability to practice invasive skills. 
C) 

the orders of the medical director.  
D) 

following system protocols.  
E) 

the integrity of the unit.  

 
5) 

Many traditional EMS treatments and practices have been abandoned or refined as a result of  

5) 

_______ 
A) 

research.  
B) 

court orders.  
C) 

lawsuits.  
D) 

legislation.  
E) 

litigation. 

 
6) 

Ensuring that your patient receives the best possible care describes the characteristic of  

6) 

_______ 
A) 

empathy. 
B) 

patient advocacy. 
C) 

integrity. 
D) 

leadership. 
E) 

compassion. 

 
7) 

One result of the increasing specialization of health care facilities has been expansion of the paramedic role in  

7) 

_______ 
A) 

BTLS. 
B) 

BCLS.  
C) 

critical care transport.  
D) 

ACLS.  
E) 

neonatal care.  

 
8) 

Paramedics working in close contact with medical direction to provide care to patients in their homes and to treat patients at emergency scenes without transport are examples of  

8) 

_______ 
A) 

palliative health care. 
B) 

tertiary health care.  
C) 

dependent health care.  
D) 

primary health care.  
E) 

managed health care.  

 
9) 

Safety inspections, accident prevention programs, medical screenings, and vaccination and/or immunization programs are some of the responsibilities of paramedics working in  

9) 

_______ 
A) 

ACLS.  
B) 

trauma care. 
C) 

neonatal intensive care programs.  
D) 

sports medicine.  
E) 

industrial medicine.  

 
10) 

Many professional sports teams have found paramedics to be effective complements to their  

10) 

______ 
A) 

athletic trainers.  
B) 

chiropractors. 
C) 

HMOs.  
D) 

physician assistants.  
E) 

players.  

 
TRUE/FALSE.  Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 
11) 

Paramedics are only permitted to work for ambulance services. 

11) 

______ 

 
12) 

The NOCP is the key to defining a national scope of practice for EMS in Canada. 

12) 

______ 

 
13) 

Participation in research projects relevant to EMS is an important part of your profession as a paramedic. 

13) 

______ 

 
14) 

Paramedics are required, by scope of practice, to transport all patients. 

14) 

______ 

 
15) 

The ability of the paramedic to think and work independently lends itself well to functioning in non-traditional roles. 

15) 

______ 

 
SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 
16) 

List and briefly describe three characteristics of a paramedic. 

16)  

_____________ 

 
17) 

List and briefly describe three areas into which paramedic scope of practice has expanded. 

17)  

_____________ 

 
18) 

List and briefly describe two goals of the National Occupational Competency Profiles. 

18)  

_____________ 

 
19) 

Briefly explain the importance of a code of professional ethics and etiquette for paramedics. 

19)  

_____________ 

 
20) 

Briefly explain "Patient Advocacy". 

20)  

_____________ 

 
MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 
21) 

A comprehensive network of personnel, equipment, and resources established to deliver aid and emergency medical care to the community is a(n)  

21) 

______ 
A) 

HMO.  
B) 

EMD organization.  
C) 

trauma system.  
D) 

BTLS. 
E) 

EMS system.  

 
22) 

The process by which an agency or association grants recognition to an individual who has met its qualifications is known as  

22) 

______ 
A) 

licensure.  
B) 

registration.  
C) 

authorization. 
D) 

reciprocity.  
E) 

certification.  

 
23) 

The process by which a regulatory agency grants permission to engage in a given occupation to an applicant who has attained the degree of competency required to ensure the public's protection is called  

23) 

______ 
A) 

registration.  
B) 

reciprocity.  
C) 

licensure.  
D) 

certification.  
E) 

authorization. 

 
24) 

________ is accomplished by entering a person's name and essential information within a particular record.  

24) 

______ 
A) 

Licensure  
B) 

Authorization 
C) 

Certification  
D) 

Registration  
E) 

Reciprocity  

 
25) 

An occupation in which the practitioners have a competence in a specialized body of knowledge or skills that has been recognized by some organization or agency is called a  

25) 

______ 
A) 

craft.  
B) 

vocation.  
C) 

career. 
D) 

profession.  
E) 

career.  

 
26) 

The rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession are  

26) 

______ 
A) 

morals.  
B) 

codes.  
C) 

protocols.  
D) 

ethics.  
E) 

guidelines. 

 
27) 

EMS systems can improve the quality of their service and paramedics can improve their knowledge and skills through an evaluation conducted by others of equal rank and skills. This evaluation is known as  

27) 

______ 
A) 

debriefing.  
B) 

continuous quality improvement. 
C) 

discovery.  
D) 

peer review.  
E) 

tenure tracking.  

 
28) 

The established policies and procedures of an EMS system that provide a standardized approach to common patient problems and a consistent level of medical care are known as  

28) 

______ 
A) 

standing orders.  
B) 

ethics.  
C) 

scope of practice. 
D) 

protocols.  
E) 

codes.  

 
29) 

The highest level of prehospital care provider is  

29) 

______ 
A) 

critical care paramedic.  
B) 

advanced care paramedic.  
C) 

primary care paramedic. 
D) 

nurse practitioner.  
E) 

physician's assistant.  

 
30) 

The publication that FIRST focused attention on the problem of emergency medical services was  

30) 

______ 
A) 

"KKK-A-1822."  
B) 

"National Occupational Competency Profiles." 
C) 

"Injury in America A Continuing Public Health Problem."  
D) 

"A Leadership Guide to Quality Improvement for Emergency Medical Services Systems."  
E) 

"Accidental Death and Disability The Neglected Disease of Modern Society."  

 
31) 

The national EMS organization that represents prehospital practitioners and has worked to establish standardized levels of training for prehospital care is the  

31) 

______ 
A) 

National Association of Paramedics.  
B) 

Paramedic Association of Canada. 
C) 

National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians. 
D) 

National Association of EMS Physicians.  
E) 

National Council of Provincial EMS Training Coordinators.  

 
32) 

The EMS-trained provider who is trained in advanced airway management, IV therapy, advanced pharmacology, cardiology, trauma management, and assessment skills among other subjects is the  

32) 

______ 
A) 

PCP.  
B) 

ECP.  
C) 

ACP.  
D) 

EMR.  
E) 

nurse practitioner. 

 
33) 

Which of the following is an EMR NOT permitted to do?  

33) 

______ 
A) 

Perform spinal stabilization.  
B) 

Assist in childbirth.  
C) 

Perform a primary assessment. 
D) 

Perform CPR.  
E) 

Perform endotracheal intubation.  

 
34) 

The process by which an agency in one province grants automatic certification or licensing to a paramedic who is certified or licensed by an agency in another province is called  

34) 

______ 
A) 

immunity.  
B) 

refraction.  
C) 

reciprocity.  
D) 

authorization. 
E) 

professional courtesy.  

 
35) 

The organization responsible for establishing national standardization within the didactic and clinical portion of paramedic education programs is the  

35) 

______ 
A) 

Canadian EMS Education Chancellory. 
B) 

Paramedic Association of Canada. 
C) 

National Council of State Paramedic Training Coordinators.  
D) 

Joint Review Committee on Educational Programs for the EMT-Paramedic.  
E) 

National Association of EMS Physicians.  

 
36) 

In 1988, the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration defined 10 elements necessary to all EMS systems. Which of the following items is NOT one of those elements?  

36) 

______ 
A) 

consumer participation  
B) 

evaluation  
C) 

regulation and policy  
D) 

medical direction  
E) 

transport 

 
37) 

Which of the following National Highway Traffic Safety Administration elements of EMS systems deals with issues of equal access to acceptable emergency care for all patients?  

37) 

______ 
A) 

evaluation 
B) 

resource management  
C) 

trauma systems  
D) 

public information and education  
E) 

facilities  

 
38) 

One area of EMS that will rely especially heavily on research in the future is  

38) 

______ 
A) 

transportation.  
B) 

communications.  
C) 

medical direction.  
D) 

public education. 
E) 

funding.  

 
39) 

Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic elements of citizen involvement in EMS?  

39) 

______ 
A) 

initiating basic life support procedures  
B) 

accessing the EMS system  
C) 

recognizing an emergency  
D) 

providing financial support for EMS agencies  

 
40) 

The person who is legally responsible for all clinical and patient-care aspects of an EMS system is the  

40) 

______ 
A) 

resource director.  
B) 

system manager. 
C) 

system administrator.  
D) 

ombudsman.  
E) 

medical director.  

 
41) 

Which of the following is NOT normally a role of the medical director in an EMS system?  

41) 

______ 
A) 

participating in personnel and equipment selection  
B) 

developing fund-raising strategies  
C) 

develop clinical protocols 
D) 

participating in quality improvement and problem resolution  
E) 

educating and training personnel  

 
42) 

Direct and immediate access to medical consultation for the paramedic and the use of telemetry are two of the benefits of  

42) 

______ 
A) 

on-line medical direction.  
B) 

intervener physician access. 
C) 

the incident command system.  
D) 

a tiered response system.  
E) 

off-line medical direction.  

 
43) 

The medical policies, procedures, and practices that have been set up in advance of calls by a system physician are all elements of  

43) 

______ 
A) 

on-line medical direction. 
B) 

a tiered response system.  
C) 

the incident command system.  
D) 

medical management guidelines. 
E) 

off-line medical direction.  

 
44) 

EMS systems develop standardized approaches to common patient problems and medical care around the four "Ts" of emergency care. Which of the following is NOT one of the four "Ts"?  

44) 

______ 
A) 

training  

B) 

triage  

C) 

transfer  

D) 

treatment 

E) 

transport  

 
45) 

Which of the following are likely subjects of protocols?  

45) 

______ 
A) 

which procedures can only be done with direct orders from medical direction  
B) 

when to use air transport vs. ground transport  
C) 

how to handle DNR orders  
D) 

A and B only 
E) 

all of the above 

 
46) 

Paramedics carry out their tasks in the prehospital setting as designated agents of the  

46) 

______ 
A) 

EMS system's medical director.  
B) 

EMS system's personnel director.  
C) 

EMS system manager. 
D) 

head of the facility to which the patient is transported.  
E) 

EMS system's CEO.  

 
47) 

A physician not affiliated with the EMS system who takes part in patient care with system paramedics at an emergency scene is referred to as a(n)  

47) 

______ 
A) 

Good Samaritan physician.  
B) 

intervener physician.  
C) 

on-site medical director. 
D) 

intrusive physician.  
E) 

altruistic physician.  

 
48) 

If the treatment provided by a non-affiliated physician differs from system standards, paramedics can NOT surrender responsibility for patient care unless the physician agrees to identify him-/herself, demonstrates a willingness to accept responsibility, documents the action as required by the EMS system, and  

48) 

______ 
A) 

accompanies the ambulance and patient to the hospital.  
B) 

leaves his/her phone or pager number.  
C) 

contacts the receiving facility. 
D) 

provides a written rationale for the difference in treatment.  
E) 

provides a copy of his/her license to the paramedics.  

 
49) 

The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration has set guidelines for quality improvement in EMS. Which of the following is NOT a component of those guidelines?  

49) 

______ 
A) 

strategic quality planning  
B) 

leadership  
C) 

human resources development and management 
D) 

financing  
E) 

information and analysis  

 
50) 

The program designed to refine and improve an EMS system with a special emphasis on customer satisfaction is  

50) 

______ 
A) 

CQI.  

B) 

QID 

C) 

QPI.  

D) 

QA.  

E) 

PDQ.  

 
51) 

One element of EMS quality improvement requires following rigorous rules of evidence before a new medication, process, or procedure is adopted. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for rules of evidence?  

51) 

______ 
A) 

The change must be clinically important.  
B) 

There must be ample scientific human research to support the idea.  
C) 

It must be practical, affordable, and teachable. 
D) 

There must be a theoretical basis for the change.  
E) 

The cost of the change should not be a factor when considering it.  

 
52) 

The first component in starting a research project is  

52) 

______ 
A) 

collecting raw data. 
B) 

getting approval for patient-consent procedures.  
C) 

outlining the logistics affecting the research.  
D) 

assess and evaluate results. 
E) 

identifying the problem and stating a hypothesis.  

 
53) 

The results of a research study written for publication in a medical journal are usually subjected to  

53) 

______ 
A) 

legal analysis.  
B) 

literary competency analysis. 
C) 

Internet posting.  
D) 

corporate review.  
E) 

peer review.  

 
54) 

The type of ambulance that has a forward cab with an integral body and a passageway from the driver's compartment to the patient's compartment is known as  

54) 

______ 
A) 

Type I.  

B) 

Type II.  

C) 

Type III.  

D) 

Type IV.  

E) 

Type V. 

 
55) 

The goal of an effective EMS dispatching system is to have the first responding units on the site in  

55) 

______ 
A) 

8 minutes.  
B) 

4 minutes.  
C) 

12 minutes.  
D) 

16 minutes.  
E) 

20 minutes. 

 
TRUE/FALSE.  Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 
56) 

The organization responsible for accrediting prehospital care training programs is the Paramedic Association of Canada. 

56) 

______ 

 
57) 

In case of a disagreement between on-line medical direction and an intervener physician, the paramedic must take orders from the on-line physician. 

57) 

______ 

 
58) 

A tiered response system refers to a system that uses an escalating level of care provider as determined by dispatch or protocols. 

58) 

______ 

 
59) 

Protocols are designed to reduce the paramedic's ability to improvise. 

59) 

______ 

 
60) 

Priority dispatching involves EMDs asking a series of protocol driven questions to determine the acuity of the call and dispatch resources accordingly. 

60) 

______ 

 
61) 

An effective EMS dispatching system places ALS care on scene in less than 12 minutes. 

61) 

______ 

 
62) 

A paramedic may perform any skill included in their training program. 

62) 

______ 

 
63) 

A type I ambulance consists of a standard van, body, and cab to form an integral unit. 

63) 

______ 

 
64) 

The highest level of trauma centre is the Primary Trauma Centre (PTC). 

64) 

______ 

 
65) 

A program designed to maintain continuous monitoring and measurement of the quality of clinical care delivered to patients is a continuous quality improvement program.  

65) 

______ 

 
SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 
66) 

List and briefly describe the four Ts of emergency care. 

66)  

_____________ 

 
67) 

List and briefly describe 3 components of an EMS system's communications plan. 

67)  

_____________ 

 
68) 

List and briefly explain three benefits of active paramedic membership in professional organizations. 

68)  

_____________ 

 
69) 

List and briefly describe the three levels of recognized trauma facilities in Canada. 

69)  

_____________ 

 
70) 

Briefly describe the difference between quality assurance and continuous quality improvement. 

70)  

_____________ 

 
MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 
71) 

A professional paramedic is responsible for acting in a professional manner  

71) 

______ 
A) 

when in contact with a patient.  
B) 

when on duty.  
C) 

when conducting public education programs. 
D) 

when on or off duty.  
E) 

when in contact with a patient and hospital personnel.  

 
72) 

A properly trained or licensed provider of health service to patients, such as a paramedic, is a(n)  

72) 

______ 
A) 

allied health professional.  
B) 

health associate.  
C) 

auxillary health employee.  
D) 

medical associate. 
E) 

health-trade worker.  

 
73) 

Professionalism is a(n)  

73) 

______ 
A) 

correlative to pay.  
B) 

elective.  
C) 

attitude.  
D) 

impression. 
E) 

avocation.  

 
74) 

Self-confidence, inner strength, ability to communicate, and willingness to make a decision are all elements of the paramedic professional attribute of  

74) 

______ 
A) 

empathy.  
B) 

respect.  
C) 

patient advocacy. 
D) 

leadership.  
E) 

integrity.  

 
75) 

The use of continuing education programs is one way a paramedic can  

75) 

______ 
A) 

achieve practitioner status. 
B) 

avoid lawsuits.  
C) 

maintain certification.  
D) 

be classified Level II.  
E) 

achieve intervener status.  

 
76) 

Which of the following is/are the benefit(s) of taking continuing education programs?  

76) 

______ 
A) 

keeping up with technological advances in EMS  
B) 

expansion of knowledge and skills  
C) 

having opportunities for practicing skills  
D) 

A and C only 
E) 

all of the above 

 
77) 

A basic rule of thumb that can be applied to taking EMS continuing education programs is that as the volume of calls decreases, training should  

77) 

______ 
A) 

correspondingly increase.  
B) 

correspondingly decrease.  
C) 

remain at its initial level.  
D) 

focus only on frequently used skills. 
E) 

none of the above 

 
78) 

Paramedics are often put in charge of a patient's wallet or other personal possessions. Treating these things properly is an illustration of the professional attribute of  

78) 

______ 
A) 

patient advocacy.  
B) 

integrity.  
C) 

leadership.  
D) 

respect. 
E) 

empathy.  

 
79) 

A paramedic's offering of consolation and support to a person who has just seen a loved one die is an example of the professional attribute of  

79) 

______ 
A) 

empathy.  
B) 

patient advocacy.  
C) 

integrity.  
D) 

leadership.  
E) 

respect. 

 
80) 

Making lists and keeping a personal calendar are two ways in which the paramedic can demonstrate the professional attribute of  

80) 

______ 
A) 

time management skills.  
B) 

communication skills.  
C) 

careful delivery of service.  
D) 

teamwork.  
E) 

self-motivation. 

 
81) 

Defending patients, protecting them, and in general acting in their best interests are all examples of the professional attribute of  

81) 

______ 
A) 

respect. 
B) 

patient advocacy.  
C) 

empathy.  
D) 

integrity.  
E) 

leadership.  

 
82) 

A paramedic's participation in "prudent heart living" campaigns and seat-belt awareness and child safety-seat programs are examples of his/her  

82) 

______ 
A) 

patient advocacy. 
B) 

community involvement.  
C) 

integrity.  
D) 

ethical behavior.  
E) 

time management.  

 
83) 

A way for paramedics to determine appropriate injury prevention programs for a community is the use of  

83) 

______ 
A) 

a trunking system.  
B) 

a tiered response.  
C) 

injury risk surveys.  
D) 

trauma triage criteria. 
E) 

telemetry.  

 
84) 

When considering the addition of a new EMS service or enhancement of an existing one, paramedics should be sure to include a role for  

84) 

______ 
A) 

the media. 
B) 

attorneys.  
C) 

intervener physicians.  
D) 

community members.  
E) 

nurses.  

 
85) 

Which of the following is an example of a way in which paramedics support primary care for patients in the out-of-hospital setting?  

85) 

______ 
A) 

assess and aid  
B) 

lock and load  
C) 

load and go  
D) 

treat and release  
E) 

stay and play 

 
86) 

Which of the following is NOT one of the paramedic's primary responsibilities?  

86) 

______ 
A) 

scene assessment 
B) 

rehabilitation  
C) 

response  
D) 

preparation  
E) 

treatment and management  

 
87) 

Which of the following is one of the paramedic's primary responsibilities?  

87) 

______ 
A) 

reconstruction  
B) 

finance collection 
C) 

disposition and transfer  
D) 

public relations  
E) 

crowd control  

 
88) 

During the response, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is  

88) 

______ 
A) 

decontaminating the unit.  
B) 

assessing the patient's responsiveness.  
C) 

familiarizing herself with the local geography 
D) 

identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness.  
E) 

anticipating risks based on dispatch information.  

 
89) 

During the return to service, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is  

89) 

______ 
A) 

identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness.  
B) 

decontaminating the unit.  
C) 

providing a clear and concise patient report 
D) 

anticipating risks based on dispatch information.  
E) 

assessing the patient's responsiveness.  

 
90) 

The conduct or qualities that characterize a practitioner in a particular field or occupation are referred to as  

90) 

______ 
A) 

ethics.  
B) 

scope of practice. 
C) 

etiquette.  
D) 

standards.  
E) 

professionalism.  

 
TRUE/FALSE.  Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 
91) 

The paramedic's first priority during transfer of a patient from a hospital to another receiving facility is documenting the verbal report given by the primary-care provider at the hospital. 

91) 

______ 

 
92) 

At the scene of an emergency, the paramedic is only responsible for the safety of himself and the patient. 

92) 

______ 

 
93) 

The implementation of primary care initiatives would allows paramedics to transport patients to facilities other than hospital emergency departments as a means of cost containment. 

93) 

______ 

 
94) 

Your appearance, as well as your behaviour, is vital to establishing credibility and instilling confidence. 

94) 

______ 

 
95) 

Completing tasks without direct supervision, completing paperwork in a timely manner, and taking advantage of learning opportunities are all examples of self-motivation. 

95) 

______ 

 
96) 

The paramedic must employ superior communications skills in order to effectively interact with patients, their families, bystanders, and fellow care providers. 

96) 

______ 

 
97) 

Self-confident paramedics are less likely to require assistance from co-workers than paramedics who are less self-assured. 

97) 

______ 

 
98) 

Paramedics are entitled to relax the same as any other person; as such their off-duty conduct will not reflect on their on-duty  professionalism. 

98) 

______ 

 
99) 

Key attributes of diplomacy include listening to others, respecting their opinions, and being flexible. 

99) 

______ 

 
100) 

To show-and feel-deferential regard, consideration, and appreciation for another is to display respect. 

100) 

_____ 

 
SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 
101) 

List three examples where a paramedic must function as a patient advocate. 

101)  

____________ 

 
102) 

List the primary responsibilities of a paramedic and briefly summarize each in your own words. 

102)  

____________ 

 
103) 

List, and in your own words describe, 4 professional attributes of a paramedic. 

103)  

____________ 

 
104) 

List and briefly describe three benefits of paramedics teaching in their communities. 

104)  

____________ 

 
105) 

List and briefly describe two methods by which paramedics may enhance primary care initiatives in their community. 

105)  

____________ 

 
MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 
106) 

Which of the following is NOT a physical benefit of achieving acceptable physical fitness?  

106) 

_____ 
A) 

decreased blood pressure  
B) 

increased resistance to illness and injury 
C) 

increased oxygen-carrying capacity  
D) 

decreased resting heart rate  
E) 

decreased metabolism  

 
107) 

Benefits associated with physical fitness include all of the following EXCEPT  

107) 

_____ 
A) 

enhanced anxiety levels.  
B) 

improved mental outlook. 
C) 

maintenance of sound motor skills.  
D) 

improved self-image.  
E) 

enhanced quality of life.  

 
108) 

Which of the following is NOT one of the core elements of physical fitness?  

108) 

_____ 
A) 

speed  
B) 

cardiovascular endurance  
C) 

muscular strength  
D) 

flexibility  
E) 

none of the above 

 
109) 

The major food groups that assure sound nutrition include all of the following EXCEPT  

109) 

_____ 
A) 

oils.  
B) 

dairy products.  
C) 

fruits.  
D) 

grains/breads.  
E) 

meat and alternatives. 

 
110) 

The number of major food groups is  

110) 

_____ 
A) 

6  

B) 

7  

C) 

5  

D) 

8 

E) 

4  

 
111) 

A healthy diet includes approximately what percentage of carbohydrates?  

111) 

_____ 
A) 

40  

B) 

10 

C) 

30 

D) 

50 

E) 

20 

 
112) 

As part of a healthy diet to control weight, you should  

112) 

_____ 
A) 

reduce the "serving size" on a food label by half.  
B) 

cut back on fluids.  
C) 

eat one "fast food" meal a day.  
D) 

eat low-calorie snacks.  
E) 

increase caffeine intake. 

 
113) 

If you want to build cardiovascular endurance, at least how many times a week must you exercise to raise your pulse to its target heart rate?  

113) 

_____ 
A) 

3  

B) 

6 

C) 

5  

D) 

2  

E) 

4  

 
114) 

When developing muscular strength, you may use the form of exercise in which muscles are worked through their full range of motion. This is known as  

114) 

_____ 
A) 

hypertonic exercise. 
B) 

isotonic exercise.  
C) 

iatrogenic exercise.  
D) 

isoscelian exercise.  
E) 

isometric exercise.  

 
115) 

Biological cycles that occur approximately every 24 hours are called  

115) 

_____ 
A) 

circadian rhythms.  
B) 

spenserian rhythms.  
C) 

kubler rhythms. 
D) 

cartesian rhythms.  
E) 

mendelian rhythms.  

 
116) 

To minimize the stress of shift work, on days off a worker should stick to sleeping at his/her  

116) 

_____ 
A) 

anchor time.  
B) 

control time. 
C) 

standard time.  
D) 

shelter time.  
E) 

baseline time.  

 
117) 

Which of the following is NOT one of the standard warning signs of cancer?  

117) 

_____ 
A) 

unexplained chronic fatigue  
B) 

lumps  
C) 

change in a mole  
D) 

blood in the stools 
E) 

weight gain  

 
118) 

All of the following are proper principles to follow when lifting EXCEPT  

118) 

_____ 
A) 

Always avoid twisting and turning.  
B) 

Lift with your legs, not your back. 
C) 

Keep your palms down when possible.  
D) 

Ask for help when you need it.  
E) 

Move a load only if you can safely handle it.  

 
119) 

One of the keys to preventing a potentially hostile situation is  

119) 

_____ 
A) 

assertion of your authority.  
B) 

effective communication.  
C) 

rapid and aggressive movements. 
D) 

moving into the personal space of bystanders.  
E) 

maintaining a closed stance.  

 
120) 

Scenario Your ambulance arrives at a scene where a car has run into a ditch alongside a two-lane country highway that runs through a corn field. Where should you park the ambulance before proceeding to the car?  

120) 

_____ 
A) 

behind the car on the same side of the street  
B) 

in front of the car on the same side of the street  
C) 

in front of the car on the opposite side of the street  
D) 

behind the car on the opposite side of the street  
E) 

none of the above 

 
121) 

Which members of an EMS ambulance crew should use seat belts?  

121) 

_____ 
A) 

none, because the requirements of medical care take priority  
B) 

only those riding in the back  
C) 

only those seated in the front  
D) 

all crew members, front and back  

 
122) 

Scenario You are responding to a call for a "person slumped behind wheel of car" on a quiet side street at 1 A.M. How should you approach this car?  

122) 

_____ 
A) 

Pull up in front of it, turn on all lights, and stay in the ambulance until you determine the scene is safe.  
B) 

Pull up in front of it, turn on all lights and siren, and dash rapidly to the vehicle.  
C) 

Pull up behind the car, use spotlights to "blind" the occupant, and approach cautiously if you perceive no hostile intent.  
D) 

Park behind the car and remain in the ambulance and wait for law enforcement back-up.  
E) 

Both C and D are appropriate. 

 
123) 

A major responsibility when operating an emergency vehicle is to show due regard for the safety of  

123) 

_____ 
A) 

the paramedic him- or herself.  
B) 

the patient.  
C) 

others, that is, the public in general.  
D) 

the EMS crew members.  
E) 

none of the above. 

 
124) 

What personal protective equipment should be worn if you are attending a childbirth?  

124) 

_____ 
A) 

gloves, protective eyewear, N-95 respirator  
B) 

no PPE is required as newborns pose no risk of infection 
C) 

gloves, protective eyewear, gown  
D) 

gloves, mask, gown, protective eyewear  
E) 

gloves and mask  

 
125) 

Which of the following is appropriate PPE when treating a suspected TB patient?  

125) 

_____ 
A) 

HEPA respirator  
B) 

surgical mask  
C) 

nonrebreather mask  
D) 

self-contained breathing apparatus 
E) 

venturi mask  

 
126) 

Which of the following is NOT one of the phases of the stress response?  

126) 

_____ 
A) 

alarm  
B) 

resistance  
C) 

withdrawal  
D) 

exhaustion  
E) 

none of the above 

 
127) 

The stage of the stress response in which the pituitary gland releases a flood of adrenocorticotropic hormones is  

127) 

_____ 
A) 

withdrawal.  
B) 

alarm.  
C) 

adaptation. 
D) 

resistance.  
E) 

exhaustion.  

 
128) 

Which of the following is one of the categories of stressors that may trigger a stress response in EMS personnel?  

128) 

_____ 
A) 

emotional 
B) 

scene-related  
C) 

administrative  
D) 

all of the above  
E) 

none of the above 

 
129) 

Into which of the following categories of warning signs of excessive stress do suspiciousness, exaggerated humor, and crying spells fall?  

129) 

_____ 
A) 

physical  
B) 

behavioural  
C) 

emotional  
D) 

cognitive  
E) 

affectual 

 
130) 

When coping mechanisms can no longer buffer stressors on the job, the result is likely to be  

130) 

_____ 
A) 

burnout.  
B) 

death. 
C) 

fugue.  
D) 

eustress.  
E) 

withdrawal. 

 
131) 

Which of the following is NOT a normal part of the "fight-or-flight" response?  

131) 

_____ 
A) 

digestion slows  
B) 

blood pressure increases  
C) 

increased blood sugar 
D) 

pupils constrict  
E) 

heart rate increases  

 
132) 

Shift work and loud pagers are examples of  

132) 

_____ 
A) 

on-scene stressors. 
B) 

administrative stressors.  
C) 

physical stressors.  
D) 

behavioral stressors.  
E) 

emotional stressors.  

 
133) 

Scenario Your EMS partner has been through some hard times lately. He broke up with his wife a couple of months ago, and his father died last month. After not smoking for years, he's taken it up again and chain smokes now. He's sometimes rude to patients, and when you try to talk with him about this, he cuts you off. Your partner is probably using stress management techniques that are described as  

133) 

_____ 
A) 

regressive. 
B) 

beneficial.  
C) 

detrimental.  
D) 

synergistic.  
E) 

administrative.  

 
134) 

The stress management technique of controlled breathing works by  

134) 

_____ 
A) 

reducing adrenaline levels.  
B) 

speeding digestion.  
C) 

increasing blood pressure.  
D) 

reducing internal airway pressures. 
E) 

increasing ACTH levels.  

 
135) 

Which of the following is NOT a component of critical incident stress management?  

135) 

_____ 
A) 

preincident stress training 
B) 

demobilization  
C) 

deferral  
D) 

defusing  
E) 

CISD  

 
136) 

During what phase of the CISM process do crews get a chance to vent their feeling about an incident?  

136) 

_____ 
A) 

CISD  
B) 

defusing  
C) 

deferral  
D) 

preincident stress training 
E) 

demobilization  

 
137) 

Which of the following is NOT likely to be classified as a critical incident?  

137) 

_____ 
A) 

death of a geriatric CHF patient in the ambulance  
B) 

extreme threat to an EMS worker  
C) 

a prolonged incident 
D) 

a building collapse  
E) 

injury or death of an infant or child  

 
138) 

When you are in a stressful situation and find yourself thinking "I can't do this," one effective strategy is  

138) 

_____ 
A) 

deferring. 
B) 

reframing.  
C) 

devolving.  
D) 

withdrawing.  
E) 

substituting.  

 
139) 

Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of loss described by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross?  

139) 

_____ 
A) 

denial  
B) 

bargaining  
C) 

retraction  
D) 

anger  
E) 

depression 

 
140) 

Which of the Kübler-Ross stages of loss grows out of the patient's frustration related to his inability to control the situation?  

140) 

_____ 
A) 

anger  
B) 

bargaining  
C) 

denial  
D) 

depression 
E) 

retraction  

 
141) 

Body substance isolation practices are based on the assumption that  

141) 

_____ 
A) 

paramedics are mainly threatened by airborne pathogens.  
B) 

hemorrhage is the precipitating factor for donning protective gear.  
C) 

they reduce the likelihood that the paramedic will communicate disease from one patient to another. 
D) 

the blood and body fluids of all patients are infectious.  
E) 

none of the above 

 
142) 

Which of the following should paramedics use with every patient?  

142) 

_____ 
A) 

mask and gown  
B) 

mask and protective eyewear  
C) 

gloves  
D) 

A and B 
E) 

all of the above 

 
143) 

Probably the most important infection-control practice is  

143) 

_____ 
A) 

proper immunizations.  
B) 

reverse isolation. 
C) 

handwashing.  
D) 

proper sterilization.  
E) 

proper disposal of gloves.  

 
144) 

Scenario You have transferred a patient to the Emergency Department. The long spine board on which you transported the patient came in direct contact with her unbroken skin. How would you clean the board?  

144) 

_____ 
A) 

Discard it. 
B) 

Disinfect it with a solution of 1 part bleach to 100 parts of water.  
C) 

Sterilize it using an autoclave. 
D) 

Sterilize it with an EPA-approved solution.  
E) 

Wash it with soap and water. 

 
145) 

Any occurrence in which blood or body fluids come in contact with non-intact skin or mucous membranes is considered a(n)  

145) 

_____ 
A) 

contamination.  
B) 

significant incident. 
C) 

infection.  
D) 

emergency.  
E) 

exposure.  

 
TRUE/FALSE.  Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 
146) 

The elements of personal well-being involve mental and emotional well-being, in addition to physical well-being. 

146) 

_____ 

 
147) 

The core elements of physical fitness include cardiovascular strength, anaerobic endurance, and back safety. 

147) 

_____ 

 
148) 

Isotonic exercise involves muscles exercised in a motionless manner. 

148) 

_____ 

 
149) 

The four major food groups are grain products, milk products, vitamins, and supplements. 

149) 

_____ 

 
150) 

When lifting objects, use the large muscles in your legs, not your back. 

150) 

_____ 

 
151) 

When moving heavy objects, if given the choice pull, do not push. 

151) 

_____ 

 
152) 

The best way to remain safe from infectious diseases when dealing with patients is to consider the blood and body fluids of every patient you treat as infectious.  

152) 

_____ 

 
153) 

When you care for a patient with suspected or confirmed TB or SARS you should wear a HEPA or N-95 respirator. 

153) 

_____ 

 
154) 

The highest level of decontamination for medical equipment is disinfecting. 

154) 

_____ 

 
155) 

According to Kubler-Ross, the first stage of loss is depression. 

155) 

_____ 

 
SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 
156) 

List and briefly describe the three phases of the stress response 

156)  

____________ 

 
157) 

Briefly describe the three methods of decontaminating and provide examples of where each might be appropriate.  

157)  

____________ 

 
158) 

Briefly contrast CIS defusing and CIS debriefing. 

158)  

____________ 

 
159) 

Briefly describe the five stages of loss according to Kubler-Ross. 

159)  

____________ 

 
160) 

List and cite examples of the core elements of physical fitness. 

160)  

____________ 

 
MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 
161) 

The study of the factors that influence the frequency, distribution, and causes of injury, disease, and other health-related events in a population is known as  

161) 

_____ 
A) 

pathophysiology. 
B) 

otolaryngology.  
C) 

toxicology.  
D) 

sociology.  
E) 

epidemiology.  

 
162) 

Injury is the number ________ killer of Canadians under the age of 45 years.  

162) 

_____ 
A) 

one 

B) 

two 

C) 

three 

D) 

four 

E) 

five 

 
163) 

The second-leading cause of injury-related deaths among seniors aged 65 and older is  

163) 

_____ 
A) 

falls. 
B) 

burns. 
C) 

motor-vehicle collisions.  
D) 

shootings. 
E) 

suicide. 

 
164) 

Years of productive life lost are determined by subtracting the age at death from 

164) 

_____ 
A) 

78 for men and 83 for women. 
B) 

55. 
C) 

83 for men and 87 for women. 
D) 

65. 
E) 

75. 

 
165) 

The most frequent cause of death in children is  

165) 

_____ 
A) 

MVCs.  
B) 

shootings.  
C) 

burns.  
D) 

falls.  
E) 

drowning. 

 
166) 

The largest number of preventable injuries in people over age 75 result from  

166) 

_____ 
A) 

burns. 
B) 

MVCs.  
C) 

burns.  
D) 

falls.  
E) 

drug reactions.  

 
167) 

The policies adopted by many managed-care organizations and HMOs that have led to increased calls to EMS involve  

167) 

_____ 
A) 

medication errors. 
B) 

early discharges.  
C) 

immunizations.  
D) 

prenatal clinics.  
E) 

elder-care clinics.  

 
168) 

Which of the following factors is a key indicator of potentially poor health in newborns?  

168) 

_____ 
A) 

respiratory rate of 30 to 60  
B) 

systolic blood pressure of 60 to 90  
C) 

low birth weight  
D) 

heart rate of 100 to 180  
E) 

oxygen saturation of 95 to 98% 

 
169) 

If a paramedic suspects a pregnant patient may be having emotional problems adjusting to her pregnancy, he should  

169) 

_____ 
A) 

submit a report to his department.  
B) 

refer her to an outside agency.  
C) 

say nothing.  
D) 

provide her with his personal contact information and advise her to call him anytime. 
E) 

transport her immediately to the emergency room.  

 
170) 

Programs that focus on keeping injuries from ever occurring are examples of  

170) 

_____ 
A) 

primary prevention.  
B) 

secondary prevention.  
C) 

quaternary prevention.  
D) 

anticipatory prevention. 
E) 

tertiary prevention.  

 
171) 

Medical care after an injury or illness that helps prevent further problems from occurring is referred to as  

171) 

_____ 
A) 

tertiary prevention.  
B) 

anticipatory prevention. 
C) 

primary prevention.  
D) 

secondary prevention.  
E) 

quaternary prevention.  

 
172) 

Rehabilitation after an injury or illness that helps prevent further problems from occurring is referred to as  

172) 

_____ 
A) 

quaternary prevention.  
B) 

secondary prevention.  
C) 

primary prevention.  
D) 

tertiary prevention.  
E) 

anticipatory prevention. 

 
173) 

To assure the success of prevention programs, EMS managers have the responsibility to provide EMS personnel with  

173) 

_____ 
A) 

health check-ups.  
B) 

instruction in basics of epidemiology.  
C) 

instruction in fundamentals of primary prevention.  
D) 

open-ended funding. 
E) 

immunizations.  

 
174) 

On a response to a call, paramedics can help patients and onlookers decrease chances of future emergency calls through the use of  

174) 

_____ 
A) 

a conference call with medical direction.  
B) 

a teachable moment.  
C) 

injury-surveillance programs. 
D) 

the PCR.  
E) 

a CISD. 

 
175) 

Items that paramedics can document on patient forms to help implement future injury prevention programs include  

175) 

_____ 
A) 

scene conditions at the time of EMS arrival.  
B) 

use or non-use of protective devices.  
C) 

risks that EMS personnel had to overcome.  
D) 

all of the above  
E) 

none of the above 

 
TRUE/FALSE.  Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 
176) 

"Years of productive life" refers to the age at death subtracted from 85. 

176) 

_____ 

 
177) 

Injuries result from interaction with potential hazards in the environment, as such they may be both predictable and preventable. 

177) 

_____ 

 
178) 

The time frame shortly after an injury occurs when patients and observers may be more receptive to teaching about how similar injuries may be prevented in the future is known as an injury surveillance program. 

178) 

_____ 

 
179) 

Primary prevention involves keeping an illness or injury from ever occuring. 

179) 

_____ 

 
180) 

It is the responsibility of EMS personnel to prevent illness and injury only amongst those persons involved in similar professions. 

180) 

_____ 

 
181) 

Low birth weight is a key indicator of poor health at the time of birth. 

181) 

_____ 

 
182) 

Most children killed in motor-vehicle collisions are pedestrians or cyclists. 

182) 

_____ 

 
183) 

Falls are the most frequent cause of injury to children younger than six years old. 

183) 

_____ 

 
184) 

It is always appropriate to capitalize on "teachable moments" regardless of the nature of illness or injury. 

184) 

_____ 

 
185) 

Nearly half of all motor-vehicle collision fatalities involve alcohol. 

185) 

_____ 

 
SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 
186) 

List and briefly explain three areas where EMS provider commitment is required to prevent responder illness and injury. 

186)  

____________ 

 
187) 

Briefly explain why injury prevention programs should specifically target the elderly. 

187)  

____________ 

 
188) 

List three potential illness and injury prevention programs that EMS professionals in your community might undertake. 

188)  

____________ 

 
189) 

List three injury prevention strategies that every paramedic may undertake. 

189)  

____________ 

 
190) 

Briefly explain the difference between primary, secondary, and tertiary injury prevention. 

190)  

____________ 

 
MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 
191) 

The rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession are known as  

191) 

_____ 
A) 

morals.  
B) 

ethics.  
C) 

protocols. 
D) 

codes.  
E) 

prerequisites.  

 
192) 

Social, religious, or personal standards of right and wrong are called  

192) 

_____ 
A) 

ethics.  
B) 

morals.  
C) 

protocols. 
D) 

prerequisites.  
E) 

codes.  

 
193) 

Which of the following have the widest focus?  

193) 

_____ 
A) 

criminal laws  
B) 

statutory laws  
C) 

prerequisites 
D) 

ethics  
E) 

administrative laws  

 
194) 

The idea that each person must decide how to behave and that whatever decision that person makes is okay is known as  

194) 

_____ 
A) 

moral positivism.  
B) 

the deontological method.  
C) 

consequentialism.  
D) 

individual morality. 
E) 

ethical relativism.  

 
195) 

The most important question a paramedic should ask him- or herself when faced with an ethical challenge is  

195) 

_____ 
A) 

"What is in the patient's best interest?"  
B) 

"What does the family want done?" 
C) 

"What legal liability will I face as a result of this action?"  
D) 

"What do system protocols say?"  
E) 

"Have I consulted with medical direction?"  

 
196) 

The four fundamental principles or values used in resolving problems in bioethics today include all of the following EXCEPT  

196) 

_____ 
A) 

beneficence.  
B) 

nonmaleficence.  
C) 

justice. 
D) 

egalitarianism.  
E) 

autonomy.  

 
197) 

The right of a competent person to determine what happens to his or her own body is one example of the principle of  

197) 

_____ 
A) 

license.  
B) 

autonomy.  
C) 

self-governance. 
D) 

libertarianism.  
E) 

latitude.  

 
198) 

The obligation of a paramedic to treat all patients fairly is an example of the principle of  

198) 

_____ 
A) 

beneficence.  
B) 

sovereignty.  
C) 

justice.  
D) 

libertarianism.  
E) 

secular equality. 

 
199) 

When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask yourself whether you can vindicate your actions to others is known as the  

199) 

_____ 
A) 

interpersonal justifiability test.  
B) 

impartiality test.  
C) 

Good Samaritan test.  
D) 

universalizability test.  
E) 

ethical efficacy test. 

 
200) 

When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask yourself whether you would be willing to undergo a procedure or action if you were in the patient's place is known as the  

200) 

_____ 
A) 

interpersonal justifiability test.  
B) 

Good Samaritan test.  
C) 

impartiality test.  
D) 

universalizability test.  
E) 

ethical efficacy test. 

 
201) 

When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask whether you would want an action performed in all relevantly similar circumstances is known as the  

201) 

_____ 
A) 

interpersonal justifiability test.  
B) 

impartiality test.  
C) 

ethical efficacy test. 
D) 

universalizability test.  
E) 

Good Samaritan test.  

 
202) 

Territorial or provincial laws requiring the reporting of births, deaths, certain infectious diseases, and child and elder abuse and neglect may require the paramedic to breach the obligation to protect the patient's  

202) 

_____ 
A) 

confidentiality. 
B) 

refusal of consent.  
C) 

right of discretion. 
D) 

autonomy.  
E) 

well-being.  

 
203) 

The MOST common situations involving allocation of scarce resources that paramedics will usually face are those that involve  

203) 

_____ 
A) 

automated external defibrillators.  
B) 

drug overdoses.  
C) 

hypoglycemia. 
D) 

anaphylaxsis.  
E) 

triage.  

 
204) 

Scenario Your ambulance is parked outside the hospital when you see a woman leap from a third floor window and land in the parking lot not far from your vehicle. You and your partner rush to her and find her bleeding, unresponsive, and having difficulty breathing. You are about to begin to administer emergency care, when a hospital aide rushes up and says, "Don't do anything. This patient has a DNR order." The aide, however, does not have the order in his possession. You should  

204) 

_____ 
A) 

begin treating the patient immediately because you have not seen the DNR order.  
B) 

not intervene as you have not been assigned to the incident by dispatch. 
C) 

package the patient and move her to the emergency department, but make no resuscitative efforts.  
D) 

call medical direction and wait for guidance on how to proceed.  
E) 

send the aide back to get the DNR order and begin treatment when he returns.  

 
205) 

If you receive a copy of a valid DNR order after you have begun resuscitation attempts, you are ethically obligated to  

205) 

_____ 
A) 

check the patient's breathing and pulse before ceasing resuscitation efforts.  
B) 

cease resuscitation efforts.  
C) 

continue resuscitation until ordered to stop by medical direction.  
D) 

continue resuscitation attempts until the patient is transported to an emergency department.  
E) 

perform a "slow code" for the benefit of family and bystanders. 

 
TRUE/FALSE.  Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 
206) 

A common approach to resolving problems in bioethics today is to employ four fundamental principles or values beneficence, nonmalfeasance, autonomy, and justice. 

206) 

_____ 

 
207) 

An Impartiality Test - asks whether you would want this action performed in all relevantly similar circumstances. 

207) 

_____ 

 
208) 

The general principle for paramedics to follow when confronted with an ethical conflict regarding a life or death intervention is "When in doubt, resuscitate." 

208) 

_____ 

 
209) 

The Impartiality test - asks whether you would be willing to undergo this procedure or action if you were in the patient's place. 

209) 

_____ 

 
210) 

The Interpersonal Justifiability test - asks whether you can defend your actions to others. 

210) 

_____ 

 
211) 

Beneficence is defined as the obligation not to harm the patient. 

211) 

_____ 

 
212) 

Autonomy refers to a competent adult patient's right to determine what happens to his own body. 

212) 

_____ 

 
213) 

Justice refers to the paramedic's obligation to treat all patients fairly. 

213) 

_____ 

 
214) 

Nonmalfeasance means not doing harm. 

214) 

_____ 

 
215) 

The single most important question a paramedic has to answer when faced with an ethical challenge is, "What is in the patient's best interests?" 

215) 

_____ 

 
SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 
216) 

Briefly explain the difference between ethics and morals. 

216)  

____________ 

 
217) 

List and briefly describe the four fundamental principles used to resolve problems in bioethics. 

217)  

____________ 

 
218) 

Briefly describe the difference between ethics and law as it pertains to the provision of prehospital care. 

218)  

____________ 

 
219) 

List the steps in resolving an ethical problem. 

219)  

____________ 

 
220) 

List and briefly describe three quick methods of testing ethics. 

220)  

____________ 

 
MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 
221) 

The basic principles of lifting safely include all of the following EXCEPT 

221) 

_____ 
A) 

Keep the weight of the object as close to your body as possible. 
B) 

Reduce the height or distance you need to move the object. 
C) 

Keep the muscles of your back and abdomen relaxed to prevent straining. 
D) 

Stack your posture. 
E) 

Use your legs, not your back, to lift. 

 
222) 

Instances where emergency moves should be considered include all of the following EXCEPT 

222) 

_____ 
A) 

when life-saving care cannot be given because of the patient's location or position. 
B) 

inability to protect the patient from other hazards at the scene. 
C) 

fire or threat of fire. 
D) 

inability to gain access to other patients who need life-saving care. 
E) 

patient with potentially limb-threatening injuries and a significant MOI. 

 
223) 

Which of the following is a two-rescuer move? 

223) 

_____ 
A) 

blanket drag 
B) 

cradle carry 
C) 

shirt drag 
D) 

extremity lift 
E) 

piggyback carry 

 
224) 

The device intended to be used to move a patient from a confined area to a standard stretcher is a 

224) 

_____ 
A) 

short backboard. 
B) 

stair chair. 
C) 

vest-type immobilization device. 
D) 

scoop stretcher. 
E) 

long backboard. 

 
225) 

The most appropriate patient moving equipment to use for a patient with a suspected spine injury who is lying down is a 

225) 

_____ 
A) 

standard stretcher. 
B) 

long backboard. 
C) 

short backboard. 
D) 

stair chair. 
E) 

vest-type immobilization device. 

 
226) 

The extremity lift should NOT be used if 

226) 

_____ 
A) 

there are only two rescuers available. 
B) 

a patient is to be moved from the floor or a chair to a stretcher. 
C) 

the patient has an altered mental status. 
D) 

the patient does not require spinal immobilization. 
E) 

the patient has injuries to his arms or legs. 

 
227) 

An unconscious patient who is not injured should be placed in which position? 

227) 

_____ 
A) 

supine 
B) 

recovery 
C) 

trendelenberg 
D) 

high-fowler 
E) 

prone 

 
228) 

Which of the following would be an indication to use a direct ground lift? 

228) 

_____ 
A) 

patient is unable to sit and a stretcher cannot be brought close to the patient 
B) 

the patient is combative or uncooperative 
C) 

the patient's location prevents access to other patients requiring life-saving care 
D) 

the patient weighs in excess of 75kg and only one rescuer is available 
E) 

the patient is on the ground or some other low surface 

 
229) 

Which of the following is NOT considered an emergency move? 

229) 

_____ 
A) 

cradle carry 
B) 

blanket drag 
C) 

one-rescuer crutch 
D) 

shirt drag 
E) 

extremity lift 

 
230) 

In order to minimize the risk of worsening a spinal injury while performing an emergency move, patients should be moved 

230) 

_____ 
A) 

in such a way as to apply traction to the head and neck 
B) 

along the long axis of the body. 
C) 

only by rolling. 
D) 

diagonally. 
E) 

laterally. 

 
231) 

The most appropriate device to immobilize a seated patient with a suspected or potential spinal injury is a 

231) 

_____ 
A) 

vest-type immobilization device. 
B) 

pole stretcher. 
C) 

scoop stretcher. 
D) 

long backboard. 
E) 

stair chair. 

 
232) 

The safest way to move a seated patient up or down stairs is to use a 

232) 

_____ 
A) 

Smith cot. 
B) 

stair chair. 
C) 

standard stretcher. 
D) 

long backboard. 
E) 

scoop stretcher. 

 
233) 

In order to allow for optimum monitoring of an unconscious patient enroute to the hospital, a patient should be placed in 

233) 

_____ 
A) 

the Trendelenberg position. 
B) 

the prone position. 
C) 

the recovery position on his right side. 
D) 

the semi-Fowler position. 
E) 

the recovery position on his left side. 

 
234) 

The shock position involves positioning the patient with 

234) 

_____ 
A) 

the hips and legs flexed in a right side-lying position. 
B) 

the patient's head and legs elevated 20 to 30 cm. 
C) 

the supine patient's head elevated 20 to 30 cm. 
D) 

the supine patient's legs elevated 20 to 30 cm. 
E) 

the hips and legs flexed in a left side-lying position. 

 
235) 

A proactive, well-balanced physical fitness program should include all of the following EXCEPT 

235) 

_____ 
A) 

strength training. 
B) 

cardiovascular conditioning. 
C) 

nutrition. 
D) 

flexibility training. 
E) 

performance enhancing drugs. 

 
236) 

A patient with abdominal pain typically finds comfort when positioned 

236) 

_____ 
A) 

side-lying with legs extended. 
B) 

side-lying with knees drawn up. 
C) 

prone with leg extended. 
D) 

supine with legs elevated. 
E) 

supine with legs extended. 

 
237) 

A power grip involves 

237) 

_____ 
A) 

the palms and fingers in complete contact with the object and all fingers bent at the same angle. 
B) 

the weight distributed only on the palm of the hand with the fingers extended. 
C) 

the load resting on the proximal joint of the fingers and the thumbs extended laterally. 
D) 

the load suspended on the distal phalanges and the palms down. 
E) 

the load supported between the thumb, index finger, and middle finger only. 

 
238) 

In order to reduce the risk of injury when lifting as a member of a team, 

238) 

_____ 
A) 

all coordination should be done using only the eyes and slight nods of the head. 
B) 

verbal signals that are clear to all members of the team should be employed throughout. 
C) 

all members should take turns being in charge. 
D) 

all lifts should be done by one person. 
E) 

extensive use of hand and arm signals should be employed. 

 
239) 

Which of the following is NOT an emergency move? 

239) 

_____ 
A) 

cradle carry 
B) 

firefighter's drag 
C) 

blanket drag 
D) 

piggyback carry 
E) 

direct ground lift 

 
240) 

Which of the following devices will provide in-line immobilization of the patient's axial skeleton? 

240) 

_____ 
A) 

portable ambulance stretcher 
B) 

stair chair 
C) 

smith cot 
D) 

pole stretcher 
E) 

short backboard 

 
TRUE/FALSE.  Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 
241) 

Body mechanics refers to the safest and most efficient methods of using your body to gain mechanical advantage. 

241) 

_____ 

 
242) 

Unless there is a life-threatening emergency, a patient who has been injured should not be moved until a primary assessment is completed. 

242) 

_____ 

 
243) 

The greatest danger in an emergency move is the possibility of worsening a spine injury. 

243) 

_____ 

 
244) 

A medically appropriate term for swayback is kyphosis. 

244) 

_____ 

 
245) 

When performing the power lift you should raise yourself onto your toes to pre-tighten the hamstring muscles. 

245) 

_____ 

 
246) 

Whenever possible it is safer to slide or drag your patient rather than lift them. 

246) 

_____ 

 
247) 

A spotter should be used when using a stair chair to help guide and support. 

247) 

_____ 

 
248) 

A conscious patient who is vomiting or nauseated should be allowed to remain in a position of comfort. 

248) 

_____ 

 
249) 

A slight outward curve should be maintained in the lower back when lifting. 

249) 

_____ 

 
250) 

When carrying heavy objects, the rescuer should attempt to keep the weight as far from the body as possible. 

250) 

_____ 

 
SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 
251) 

List three principles of sound body mechanics. 

251)  

____________ 

 
252) 

List three examples of when emergency moves would be necessary. 

252)  

____________ 

 
1) 

A 

2) 

C 

3) 

E 

4) 

A 

5) 

A 

6) 

B 

7) 

C 

8) 

D 

9) 

E 

10) 

A 

11) 

FALSE 

12) 

TRUE 

13) 

TRUE 

14) 

FALSE 

15) 

TRUE 

16) 

confident, excellent judgement, good communication skills, decisive, patient advocate 

17) 

critical care transport, primary health care, tactical EMS, industrial medicine, sports medicine, heavy urban search and rescue, hazmat 

18) 

standardize paramedical education across Canada; serve as a reference point to promote paramedic mobility between provinces and territories; become a blueprint for a national registry exam 

19) 

Adherence to a code of ethics ensures that the patient's and the public's interests are always placed above personal, corporate, or financial interests. 

20) 

Being a patient advocate refers to ensuring that the patient is well informed and involved as reasonably as possible in the direction of their own care.  Being a patient advocate means ensuring that the patient receives the best possible care, and that their rights and privileges are respected and protected throughout their interaction with the EMS system. 

21) 

E 

22) 

E 

23) 

C 

24) 

D 

25) 

D 

26) 

D 

27) 

D 

28) 

D 

29) 

A 

30) 

E 

31) 

B 

32) 

C 

33) 

E 

34) 

C 

35) 

B 

36) 

A 

37) 

B 

38) 

E 

39) 

D 

40) 

E 

41) 

B 

42) 

A 

43) 

E 

44) 

A 

45) 

E 

46) 

A 

47) 

B 

48) 

A 

49) 

D 

50) 

A 

51) 

E 

52) 

E 

53) 

E 

54) 

C 

55) 

B 

56) 

FALSE 

57) 

TRUE 

58) 

TRUE 

59) 

FALSE 

60) 

TRUE 

61) 

FALSE 

62) 

FALSE 

63) 

FALSE 

64) 

FALSE 

65) 

FALSE 

66) 

Triage - assigning the appropriate resources to each patient
Treatment - providing care based upon patient advocacy, online medical direction, and protocols
Transport - the selection of an appropriate means of transport (air vs. ground) dependent upon factors such as mechanism of injury, patient acuity, level of care required, transport time
Transfer - the selection of an appropriate receiving facility capable of providing the most definitive care  

67) 

Citizen Access - universal access (911) with automatic caller locating (E-911)
Single Control Center - one call coordination center that dispatches all emergency resources within a large geographical area
Operational communications capabilities - has the ability to communicate with all emergency agencies within a given region, including mutual aid and disaster resources
Medical communications capabilities - has the ability to communicate with receiving facilities, medical control, and in many cases provide telemetry and data transfer
Communications hardware - a plan exists to provide, utilize, and maintain the required radios, phones, pagers, computers, and towers to ensure reliable communications
Communications software - the computer programs, radio frequencies, and policies that ensure seamless integration of communications system components  

68) 

It allows the paramedic to remain current and informed, to share ideas, to assist in the development of educational programs and curricula, to provide input on operational policies and procedures, and to bring forward ideas on means of advancing the profession. 

69) 

Tertiary Trauma Centre - a pediatric or adult trauma facility with a 24-hour trauma response team, associated with a university and partaking in trauma research
District Trauma Centre - provides a dedicated 24-hour trauma response team capable of resuscitation and treatment
Primary Trauma Centre - provides initial triage for all trauma situations 

70) 

Quality assurance monitors and measure the quality of 'clinical' care delivered to patients.
Continuous quality improvement focuses on customer satisfaction.  

71) 

D 

72) 

A 

73) 

C 

74) 

D 

75) 

C 

76) 

E 

77) 

A 

78) 

B 

79) 

A 

80) 

A 

81) 

B 

82) 

B 

83) 

C 

84) 

D 

85) 

D 

86) 

B 

87) 

C 

88) 

E 

89) 

B 

90) 

E 

91) 

FALSE 

92) 

FALSE 

93) 

TRUE 

94) 

TRUE 

95) 

TRUE 

96) 

TRUE 

97) 

FALSE 

98) 

FALSE 

99) 

TRUE 

100) 

TRUE 

101) 

Suspected child abuse.
Suspected elder abuse.
Patients who are unable to cope/live independently.
Patients who are not receiving fair treatment by other health-care providers.
Patients whose quality of life may benefit from accessing social assistance agencies. 

102) 

Preparation - Knowledge of protocols, policies, procedures, geography, telecommunications equipment, support agencies and resource access as well as maintenance of the ambulance and essential equipment.
Response - Safe and timely response to an incident using available time and dispatch information request additional resources.
Scene Assessment - Determination of hazards associated with the scene, MoI, # of patients, additional resources required, as well as challenges to access/egress and patient care.
Patient Assessment - To search for conditions that are immediately life-threatening and to identify conditions that are not or may become life-threatening utilizing MoI, history taking, physical exam, and diagnostics.
Patient Management - To remedy, within the paramedic's scope, those conditions that are immediately life-threatening as well as those conditions that are not or may become life-threatening utilizing BLS and/or measures that are highly invasive or pharmaceutical in nature.
Disposition and Transfer -  Transporting  patients to the most appropriate facility for treatment and providing for a continuum of care through appropriate reporting to the receiving facility.
Documentation - Summary data recording to provide for administrative and medical requirements.
Clean-up, maintenance, and review - Decontamination of ambulance and equipment, reparation or replacement of any defective or disposable equipment, and constructive critique of prior call with emphasis on "areas for improvement", not assigning blame. 

103) 

Leadership - self-confident, credible, able to communicate ideas clearly, decisive, accountable
Integrity - honest and trustworthy
Empathetic - recognize and appreciate the circumstances, feelings, and motives of others
Self-motivated - able to work and initiate work without direct supervision
Professional appearance and personal hygiene - well presented in appropriate uniform, subdued make-up and scents; instill confidence through appearance
Self-confident - well-prepared, diligent, and therefore prepared for any challenge presented; maintains an awareness of not only one's strengths, but weaknesses as well, and works to improve
Superior communication skills - able to clearly communicate ideas with patients, paramedics, and other health care providers; effectively employs active listening skills
Time management - able to prioritize tasks and organize activities to efficiently utilize available time
Teamwork and Diplomacy - places the success of the team ahead of personal success, respects the patient, other care-providers, and the community
Respect - shows and feels deferential regard, consideration, and appreciation of others
Patient advocacy - represents the best interests of the patient
Careful delivery of service - attention to detail, maintenance of knowledge and skills to the point of mastery  

104) 

Lay rescuer education and training saves lives.
Promotes positive health practices.
Enhances EMS visibility.
Promotes a positive image.
Puts forth EMS personnel as positive role models.
Creates opportunities to improve integration of EMS with other health-care and public safety agencies. 

105) 

Promote wellness as well as illness and injury prevention programs.
Establish protocols to provide for the transport of non-emergency patients.
Re-direct patients to the most appropriate care facility (not necessarily the ED).
Implement "treat and release" protocols for stable, field-treatable conditions. 

106) 

E 

107) 

A 

108) 

A 

109) 

A 

110) 

E 

111) 

A 

112) 

D 

113) 

A 

114) 

B 

115) 

A 

116) 

A 

117) 

E 

118) 

C 

119) 

B 

120) 

B 

121) 

D 

122) 

E 

123) 

C 

124) 

D 

125) 

A 

126) 

C 

127) 

B 

128) 

D 

129) 

B 

130) 

A 

131) 

D 

132) 

B 

133) 

C 

134) 

A 

135) 

C 

136) 

B 

137) 

A 

138) 

B 

139) 

C 

140) 

A 

141) 

D 

142) 

C 

143) 

C 

144) 

B 

145) 

E 

146) 

TRUE 

147) 

FALSE 

148) 

FALSE 

149) 

FALSE 

150) 

TRUE 

151) 

FALSE 

152) 

TRUE 

153) 

TRUE 

154) 

FALSE 

155) 

FALSE 

156) 

Alarm - characterized by the autonomic (sympathetic) physical response including increased heart rate and blood pressure, pupil dilation, increased blood sugar, and bronchodilation.  This reaction ends when the event is recognized as not dangerous.
Resistance - occurs when the individual begins to cope with stress.  Physiological parameters may return to normal.
Exhaustion - results when prolonged exposure to the same stressors leads to exhaustion of an individual's ability to resist and adapt. 

157) 

Cleaning - refers to washing an object with soap and water.  After caring for a patient, wash down work areas with approved soaps.
Disinfecting - includes cleaning with an agent capable of killing many microorganisms on the surface of an object.  Disinfect equipment that had direct contact with the intact skin of a patient.
Sterilizing - is the use of a chemical, or physical method-such as pressurized steam-to kill all microorganisms on an object.  Items that were inserted into the patient's body should be sterilized by heat, steam, or radiation.   

158) 

Defusing is typically held two to four hours, but not more than 12 hours after the event.  It is a short, informal meeting that allows responders to voice or vent their feelings about the incident.  Usually conducted by a CISM trained peer.
Debriefing is a formal, structured, and carefully planned intervention.  It occurs 24 to 72 hours after the event by a trained CISM team that includes mental health workers and peer supporters. 

159) 

Denial - Inability or reffusal to believe the reality of the event.
Anger - Frustration related to the lack of control.
Bargaining - Attempts to make a deal or buy time to change the expected outcome.
Depression - The patient is overcome with sadness and despair.
Acceptance - The patient achieves a reasonable level of comfort with anticipated outcomes. 

160) 

Cardiovascular endurance - walking, jogging, swimming, biking, cross-country skiing, any activity performed at least three times per week that raises one's pulse to it's target heart rate.
Muscular strength - may include isotonic (active exercise through a muscle's range of motion) or isometric (active exercise against stable resistance).  May include the use of free weights, universal or nautilus type equipment.
Flexibility - is the stretching of major muscle groups and should be accomplished daily.  All stretches should be held for at least 60 seconds.  

161) 

E 

162) 

A 

163) 

A 

164) 

D 

165) 

A 

166) 

D 

167) 

B 

168) 

C 

169) 

B 

170) 

A 

171) 

D 

172) 

D 

173) 

C 

174) 

B 

175) 

D 

176) 

FALSE 

177) 

TRUE 

178) 

FALSE 

179) 

TRUE 

180) 

FALSE 

181) 

TRUE 

182) 

TRUE 

183) 

TRUE 

184) 

FALSE 

185) 

TRUE 

186) 

BSI precautions - providers should use appropriate PPE on every call and at every potential exposure
Physical fitness - reduces the likelihood of injury from daily activities and reduces cardiovascular risk factors
Stress management - reduces the chance of "burnout" occuring
Professional care and counseling - seeking professional consultation when faced with overwhelming physical, emotional, or mental manifestations of job related stressors
Safe driving - avoiding injuries associated with MVCs through techniques that ensure due regard for the safety of others
Proper lifting techniques - reducing the likelihood of "lost time injuries" due to repetitive strain back injuries 

187) 

Falls account for the largest number of preventable injuries for persons over 75 years of age.  
The aging process also places the elderly at greater risk of serious head injury as well as many other injuries.
Many elderly persons suffer some degree of dementia that may contribute to dangerous behaviours such as wandering away.
Elderly patients are at greater risk of medication errors. 

188) 

Childhood and flu immunization clinics
Prenatal and well-baby clinics
Eldercare clinics
Defensive driving classes
Workplace safety courses
Health clinics (in partnership with other health-care organizations)
Prevention information on your agency's website
First aid and CPR classes
Car seat safety clinics and inspections 

189) 

Preserve the safety of the response team.
Recognize scene hazards.
Document findings/collect data.
Engage in on-scene education.
Know community resources.
Conduct a community needs assessment. 

190) 

Primary prevention aims to keep injuries or illness from ever occurring.
Secondary prevention involves the medical care after an injury or illness that helps prevent further problems from occurring.
Tertiary prevention is rehabilitation after an injury or illness that helps prevent further problems from occurring. 

191) 

B 

192) 

B 

193) 

D 

194) 

E 

195) 

A 

196) 

D 

197) 

B 

198) 

C 

199) 

A 

200) 

C 

201) 

D 

202) 

A 

203) 

E 

204) 

A 

205) 

B 

206) 

TRUE 

207) 

FALSE 

208) 

TRUE 

209) 

TRUE 

210) 

TRUE 

211) 

FALSE 

212) 

TRUE 

213) 

TRUE 

214) 

TRUE 

215) 

TRUE 

216) 

Ethics are the rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession.
Morals are social, religious or personal standards of right and wrong. 

217) 

Beneficence - the principle of doing good for the patient; all actions taken should be directed at improving patient outcomes
Nonmalfeasance - the obligation to not harm the patient; prophylactic actions  that cause injury or discomfort to the patient must be avoided
Autonomy - acknowledgement that a competent adult patient has the right to determine what happens to his or her own body
Justice - the obligation to treat all persons fairly; regardless of gender, race, religion, etc. 

218) 

Ethics focuses on what is right and good.  Laws define what is wrong in the eyes of society.      

219) 

1. State the action in a universal form.  Describe what should be done, who should do it, and under what conditions.
2. List the implications, or consequences, of the action.
3. Compare the consequences with relevant values.  

220) 

Impartiality test - would you be willing to undergo the procedure if you were in the patient's place
Universalizability test - would you want this action performed in all similar circumstances
Interpersonal justifiability test - can you justify your actions to others 

221) 

C 

222) 

E 

223) 

D 

224) 

D 

225) 

B 

226) 

E 

227) 

B 

228) 

A 

229) 

E 

230) 

B 

231) 

A 

232) 

B 

233) 

E 

234) 

D 

235) 

E 

236) 

B 

237) 

A 

238) 

B 

239) 

E 

240) 

E 

241) 

TRUE 

242) 

TRUE 

243) 

TRUE 

244) 

FALSE 

245) 

FALSE 

246) 

TRUE 

247) 

TRUE 

248) 

TRUE 

249) 

FALSE 

250) 

FALSE 

251) 

Use your legs, not your back, to lift.
Keep the weight of the object as close to your body as possible.
Stack your posture.
Reduce the height or distance you need to move the object. 

252) 

Fire or threat of fire.
Explosion or the threat of explosion.
Inability to protect the patient from hazards at the scene.
Inability to gain access to other patients who need life-saving care.
When life-saving care cannot be provided because of the patient's location or position.